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Terms in this set [20]
During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. NVRAM
D. disk drive
A
What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?
A. The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
B. The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
C. The switch drops the frame.
D. The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.
C
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
A. the automatic configuration of an
interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
B. the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
C. the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
D. the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
B
What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding [CEF]? [Choose two.]
A. adjacency tables
B. MAC-address tables
C. routing tables
D. ARP tables
E. forwarding information base [FIB]
AE
Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?
A. It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
B.
It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host
C. It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
D. It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.
B
Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?
A. Datagrams that arrive in a
different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
B. A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
C. A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
D. Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable
A
Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? [Choose two.]
A. It eliminates most address configuration errors.
B. It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
C. It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
D. It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
E. It reduces the burden on network support staff.
AE
What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
A. 2001:DB8:BC15::0
B. 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
C. 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
D. 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
B
What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
A. to require users to prove who they are
B. to determine which resources a user can access
C. to keep track of the actions of a user
D. to provide challenge
and response questions
A
Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?
A. EAP
B. PSK
C. WEP
D. WPA
D
Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?
A. Packet Length
B. Destination Address
C.
Flag
D. Time-to-Live
B
What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding [CEF] on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?
A. Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
B. Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
C. CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.
D. Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding
information base [FIB].
C
What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding [CEF]?
A. to populate the forwarding information base [FIB]
B. to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses
C. to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making
D. to update the forwarding information base [FIB]
B
Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?
A. It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.
B. In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.
C. When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.
D. Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to
carry the data from one host to another.
D
What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
A. 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
B. 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
C. 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
D. 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
A
What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
A. TTL field
B. CRC field
C. Hop Limit field
D. Time Exceeded field
C
Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?
A. an inband router interface
B. a console port
C. a serial WAN interface
D. an AUX port
D
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? [Choose three.]
A. TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
B. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
C. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
D. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
E. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
ADE
Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?
A. IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
B. A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.
C. A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.
D. Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.
B
An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?
A. It will remove encryption from all passwords.
B. It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.
C. It will not reverse any encryption.
D. It will reverse only the enable
password encryption.
C
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