Research method is applicable in all of the following fields, EXCEPT

23. A review of the literature prior to formulating research hypotheses allows the researcher to do which of the following?

a.� to become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest.

b.� to identify potential methodological problems in the research area.�

c.� to develop a list of pertinent questions relative to the phenomenon of interest.�

d.� all of the above *

24. What kind of ideas can�t be empirically researched?�

a.� effectiveness of different methods of instruction.

b.� description of educational practices.

c.� issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools. *

d.� factors helpful in predicting future drug use�

25. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a.� cost and time required to conduct the study

b. skills required of the researcher

c.� potential ethical concerns

d.� all of the above*

26. A formal statement of the research problem or �purpose of research study� generally ______.

a.� is made prior to the literature review.�

b.� is used to synthesize the literature review.�

c.� will help guide the research process.�

d.� all of the above*

e.� b and c

27. In quantitative research, the problem statement __________.

a.� can be stated in a question form.�

b.� can be stated in a declarative form.�

c.� both a and b*

d.� only a.

e.� only b.

28. Which of the following quantitative research problem statements is superior?

a.� �What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic performance?��

b.� �What effect does playing high school football have on students� overall grade point average during the football season?� *

29. A specific statement of the research problem allows the researcher to

a.� understand the research problem of interest.�

b.� select appropriate participants, measures, and materials.�

c.� specify the variables of interest.�

d.� all of the above*

30. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?

a. Introduction

b. Method*

c. Data analysis

d. Discussion

31. Research hypotheses are ______.

a.� formulated prior to a review of the literature.�

b.� statements of predicted relationships between variables.

c.� stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted.�

d.� b and c*

32. A research plan _____.

a.� should be detailed.�

b.� should be given to others for review and comments.�

c.� sets out the rationale for a research study.

d.� all of the above*

33. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a.� the research participants.�

b.� the results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest.�

c.� the apparatus, instruments and materials for the research study.�

d.� the planned implementation strategies.�

e.� a, c and d*

34. The Introduction section of the research plan

a.� gives an overview of prior relevant studies

b.� contains a statement of the purpose of the study

c.� concludes with a statement of the research hypothesis.�

d.� all of the above*

35. Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?
a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completed*
c. Keeping participants� identity anonymous

d. telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time

36. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to the research group, is not revealed to anyone other than the researcher and his or her staff.
a. anonymity
b. confidentiality*

37. Which of the following is not true?
a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest.
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect.
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect*

d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem

38. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. This is called
a. anonymity*
b. confidentiality
c. deception
d. desensitizing

39. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and staff.
a. confidentiality*
b. anonymity
c. ethics
d. discretion

40. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. guidelines
b. a commitment
c. informed consent*
d. private information

41.� Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all aspects of the study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception are given, and the participants� questions are answered?
a. desensitizing
b. debriefing*
c. dehoaxing
d. deploying

42.� IRB is an acronym for which of the following?
a. Internal Review Board*
b. Institutional Rating Board
c. Institutional Review Board
d. Internal Request Board

43. When it is necessary to engage in deception to conduct a scientifically valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher consider following?
a. debriefing*
b. dehoaxing
c. desensitizing
d. all of the above should be considered

44. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.
a. true*
b. false

45. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
a. nominal*
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio

46.�� ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning that goes on in life.
a. personality
b. achievement
c. aptitude*
d. intelligence

47. If a test fairly accurately indicates participants� scores on a future test, such as when the PSAT being used to provide high-school GPA scores, this test would be considered to have which of the following?

a. face validity

b. concurrent validity

c. predictive validity*

d. content validity

48.� If a baseball coach calculates batting averages (ranging from 0 to a possible high score of 1000), what scale would be used?

a. interval scale

b. ratio scale*

c. nominal scale

d. ordinal scale

49. According to the text, most of the characteristics and attributes measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________ level of measurement.

a. nominal

b. ordinal*

c. interval

d. ratio

50. Which of the following is an example of a psychological trait?

a. anxiety enduring for months or years*

b. anxiety over just seeing a spider

c. shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time

d. depression caused by the loss of a ball game

51. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:

a.� Wechsler Scales

b.� Stanford-Binet

c.� Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)*

d.� Slosson

52. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?

a.� consistency or stability*

b.� appropriateness of interpretation on basis of score

c.� ways in which people are the same

d.� a rank order of participants on some characteristic

53. An ordinal scale is ______:
a. the simplest form of measurement
b. a rank-order scale of measurement*
c. a scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
d. a scale with an absolute zero point

54.� Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
a. test-retest
b. split-half
c. content*

d. internal consistency

55. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability?

a.� measure of consistency of test scores over time*

b.� measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of the same test

c.� measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or concept

d.� measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or raters

56. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores over time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability*
d. Inter-scorer reliability

57. Identify the following term that refers to a judgement of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in some activity:
a. content validity
b. face validity
c. criterion-related validity
d. inference validity*

58. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens� four levels of measurement?
a. ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio*
c. interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal

59. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?
a. validation*
b. validity
c. reliability

d. prediction

60. When evaluating tests and assessments, �reliability� refers to asking ourselves which of the following questions?

a.� does it measure what it is supposed to measure?

b.� are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?

c.� does it give consistent results? *

d.� does it measure multiple constructs?

61. Construct validity of a test designed to measure self-esteem is best described by which of the following?

a.� scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests.

b.� scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructs.

c.� scores from the test are not correlated with anything

d.� scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with other tests of the same construct (i.e., with other measures of self-esteem)*

62. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores on two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic?�

a.� split-half

b.� test-retest

c.� split-forms

d.� equivalent forms*

63. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience.

a.�� true*

b.�� false

64. The term _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.
a. construct validity
b. criterion-related validity
c. content validity*
d. face validity

65. Which of these is not a method of data collection.
a. questionnaires
b. interviews
c. experiments*

d. observations

66. Secondary data may include which of the following?
a. official documents
b. personal documents

c. archived research data

d. all of the above*

67. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response is called a ____________.

a. Response set

b. Probe

c. Semantic differential

d. Filter or contingency question*

68. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?

a. primary data

b. secondary data*

c. experimental data

d. field notes

69. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?

a. open-ended questions provide quantitative data based on the researcher�s predetermined response categories.

b. closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant�s own words.

c. open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant�s own words*

d. closed-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants� own words

70. Open-ended questions provide primarily _____________________ data.

a.� confirmatory data

b.� qualitative data*

c.� predictive data

d.� none of the above

71. Which of the following is true concerning observation?

a. it takes less time than self-report approaches

b. it costs less money than self-report approaches

c. it is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do*

d. all of the above

72. When constructing a questionnaire, it is important to do each of the following except� ______.

a. use "leading" or "loaded" questions*

b. use natural language

c. understand your research participants

d. pilot your test questionnaire

73. Another name for a Likert Scale is:

a. interview protocol

b. event sampling

c. summated rating scale*

d. ranking

74. Which of the following is not one of the major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers?

a.� focus groups

b. secondary data

c. questionnaires

d. checklists*

75. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called which of the following?

a. interview guide approach*

b. informal conversational interview

c. closed quantitative interview

d. standardized open-ended interview

76. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:

a. questionnaires

b. interviews

c. secondary data

d. focus groups

e. all of the above are methods of data collection*

77. A question during an interview such as �Why do you feel that way?� is known as a:

a. probe*

b. filter question

c. response

d. pilot

78. A census taker usually collects data through which of the following?

a. standardized tests

b. interviews*

c. focus groups

d. observations

79. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?
a. questionnaires
b. focus groups
c. regression*
d. secondary data

80. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:

a. filter questions

b. probes*

c. protocols

d. response categories

81. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 14 principles to which you should adhere. Which of the following is not one of those principles?

a. do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions.

b. avoid double-barreled questions.

c. avoid double negatives

d. do not use multiple items to measure a single construct*

82. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?

a. simple random sampling with replacement*

b. quota sampling

c. snowball sampling

d. simple random sampling without replacement

e. all of the above are EPSEM

83. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?

a. snowball sampling

b. convenience sampling

c. quota sampling

d. purposive sampling

e. they are all forms of nonrandom sampling*

84. Which of the following will give a more �accurate� representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?

a. a large sample based on the convenience sampling technique

b. a small sample based on simple random sampling

c. a large sample based on simple random sampling*

d. a small cluster sample

85. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______.

a.� simple random sampling

b.� cluster sampling

c.� systematic sampling

d.� convenience sampling*

86. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?

a.� proportional stratified sampling

b.� quota sampling*

c.� one-stage cluster sampling

d.� two-stage cluster sampling

87. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.

a.� extreme case sampling

b.� typical-case sampling

c.� critical-case sampling

d.� negative-case sampling*

88. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. snowball*

b. convenience
c. purposive

d. quota

89. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. stratification variable*
d. sampling variable

90. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called _________.
a. sampling without replacement
b. sampling with replacement*
c. simple random sampling

d. systematic sampling

91. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

a.� cluster sampling*

b.� convenience sampling

c.� quota sampling

d.� purposive sampling

e.� they are all type of nonrandom sampling

92. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?

a. purposive

b. quota

c. convenience

d. cluster*

93. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?

a.� convenience sampling

b.� quota sampling

c.� purposive sampling

d.� random sampling*

94.� ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.

a.� sample*

b.� population

c.� statistic

d. element

95. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?

a. simple random sampling

b. stratified random sampling

c. systematic sampling*

d. cluster sampling

96. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two variables is causal?

a. internal validity*

b. population validity

c. ecological validity

d. temporal validity

97.� ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.

a.� instrumentation

b.� history

c.� maturation*

d.� testing

98. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized across time?

a.� ecological validity

b.� external validity

c.�� internal validity

d.�� temporal validity*

99. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?

a. evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related

b. evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is not due to an extraneous variable

c. evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B

d. the temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter*

100. Which of the following refers to any change that occurs over time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?

a. instrumentation*

b. maturation

c. testing

d. selection

101. The use of several measures of a construct is called

a. multiple operationalism*

b. multiple construct measurement

c. operationalism

d. methods triangulation

102. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their performance on the dependent variable is called ________.

a. instrumentation

b. maturation*

c. regression

d. none of above

103. Mortality generally occurs in research where ____.

a. you do demographic research

b. the study fails

c. participants drop out of the research study*

d. the study is very brief

104. Internal validity refers to which of the following?

a. the ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables*
b. the extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of persons, settings, and times

c. the use of effective measurement instruments in the study

d. the ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study

105. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research methods to study a phenomenon?
a. data triangulation
b. methods triangulation*
c. theory triangulation
d. member checking

106. What is occurring when a researcher allows his own personal views and perspective to affect how data are interpreted and how the study is conducted?

a. reactivity

b. researcher bias*

c. reflexivity

d. interpretive validity

107. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?

a. maturation

b. instrumentation

c. temporal change*

d. history

108. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across settings.

a. temporal validity

b. internal validity

c. ecological validity*

d. external validity

109. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?

a. history

b. testing

c. sampling error*

d. selection

110. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is known as ______.

a. operationalism

b. reactivity*

c. temporal validity

d. mortality

111. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.

a. one-group pretest-posttest design

b. pretest-posttest control group design*

c. static-group comparison design

d. both b and c

112. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.

a. experimental group*

b. control group

c. participant group

d. independent group

113. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?

a. building the extraneous variable into the design

b. matching

c. random assignment*

d. analysis of covariance

114. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.

a. experimental group

b. control group*

c. treatment group

d. independent group

115. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered the most important?

a. random assignment*

b. matching

c. counterbalancing

d. none of the above

116. The most popular procedure for randomly assigning participants to comparison groups is to ______.

a.� assign letters.

b.� choose by alphabetical order.

c.� use a list of random numbers.*

d.� let the researcher decide which group will be the best

117. Which control-group design does an excellent job of controlling for rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?�

a.�� static group design

b.�� posttest-only control-group design

c.�� pretest-posttest control-group design

d.�� both b and c are excellent designs*

118. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type of variable presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.
a.� amount technique
b.� absence technique
c.� type technique*
d.� presence technique

119. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over the other methods?

a. matching individual participants

b. holding extraneous variables

c. building the extraneous variable into the research design

d. counterbalancing

e. randomly assign research participants to the groups*

120. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____.

a. dependent variable

b. extraneous variable

c. independent variable*

d. confounding variable

121. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment conditions.

a. factorial design

b. repeated measures design*

c. replicated design

d. pretest-posttest control-group design

122. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.

a. One-group posttest-only design

b. One-group pretest-posttest design

c. Static-group comparison design*

d. time series design

123. Which of the following is an interrupted time-series design that includes a control group to rule out a history effect?
a.� multiple time-series design*
b.� interrupted time-series design
c.� A-B-A design
d.� single-case experimental designs

124.A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following?
a. interrupted time-series design
b. nonequivalent control group design*
c. single case design

d. multiple-baseline design

125. A form of the nonequivalent control-group design is recommended when ____.

a. it is not possible to control for a basic history effect.

b. it is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups.*

c. it is not possible to identify two groups.

d. all of the above

126. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent control-group design is the _____ effect.

a. selection-maturation effect

b. selection-history effect

c. selection

d. all of the above are threats*

127. The primary threat to internal validity in the interrupted time-series design is the ____ effect.

a. history*

b. maturation

c. selection

d. testing

128. In single-case research, �baseline� refers to ________.

a. the beginning point of the treatment condition

b. the end point of the treatment condition

c. a condition prior to any experimental intervention*

d. the time during which a treatment condition is administered

129. A baseline _____________.

a. is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is assessed

b. is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state

c. is often obtained prior to the administration of a treatment

d. all of the above are true*

130. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?

a. A-B-A design*

b. single-case design

c. multiple-baseline

d. changing-criterion

131. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn.

a. changing-criterion design

b. multiple-baseline design

c. A-B-A design*

d. multiple-time series design

132. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?

a. both designs end on the treatment condition

b. neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition*

133. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?

a. baseline measurement

b. introduction of treatment

c. introduction of second treatment*

d. removal of treatment

134. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?

a. the relationship condition

b. the temporal antecedence condition

c. the lack of alternative explanation condition

d. all of the above*

135. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always problematic in nonexperimental research?

a.� Condition 1:� Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship condition).

b.� Condition 2:� Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence condition).

c.� Condition 3:� The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be due to some confounding extraneous variable*

d. nonexperimental research is weak on all three of the conditions

136. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?

a.� trend study

b.� cohort study

c.� cross-sectional study*

d.� panel study

137. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for concluding that the relationship is a _______________.

a. causal relationship*

b. collective relationship

c. correlational relationship

d. noncorrelational relationship

138. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended period of time.

a. trend study

b. panel study*

c. both a and b

d. neither a nor b

139. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does.

a. descriptive research

b. predictive research

c. explanatory research*

d. none of the above

140. Which of the following would be the most complete definition of "science" as a source of knowledge?

a. it is the systematic observation of phenomena

b. it is the systematic and objective study of the world.

c. it is a method of obtaining objective knowledge about the world through systematic observation.*

d. it is a method of obtaining objective knowledge of the world through the direct experience of it.

141. If data are collected from heads of households about the characteristics of the household, the unit of analysis is:

a. the individual.

b. the organization.

c. the group.*

d. the program.

e. the head of the household.

142. Concepts for which it is easiest to develop operational definitions are those:

a. that have readily identifiable empirical referents.*

b. that are very general and abstract.

c. about which there is controversy.

d. that are parts of hypotheses.

143. The list of the sampling units used to select a sample is called a:

a.� population.

b. statistic.

c. sampling frame. *

d.� parameter.

e. none of the above.

144. The accuracy of a measure is its:

a.� reliability

b. discreteness

c. measurability

d. validity.*

145. The "ecological fallacy" would be best defined as:

a. the use of artifacts in social work research.

b. the use of a cross-sectional design when a longitudinal design is more appropriate.

c. inferring something about individuals based on data collected about groups.*

d. collecting data from people in their natural setting (their ecology) rather than in a more neutral setting.

146. A spurious relationship is one in which:

a. there is a positive relationship between two variables.

b. the relationship disappears when the effects of other variables are taken into account .*

c. the independent variable occurs later in time than does the dependent variable.

d. inductive reasoning is used but not deductive reasoning.

147. Which of the following (is) are among the advantages of random sampling?

a. Random samples are always perfectly representative of the population from which they are drown.

b. The probability of selection of each element is known in advance.*

c. both a and b.

148. To infer causality, all of the following must be present except:

a. two variables must covary.

b. one variable must occur prior in time to the other variable.

c. there must be a positive relationship between the two variables.*

d. the relationship between the two variables must not be spurious.

149. The term "sampling fraction" refers to:

a. the number of elements in the sample.

b. the size of the sample you will need to have a representative sample.

c. the number of elements in a stratum relative to the number of elements in the whole stratified sample.

d. the number of elements in the sample relative to the number of elements in the population.*

150. A scale in which there is a series of statements, each followed by five response alternatives, is called:

a. a Likert scale*

b. a Thurstone scale.

c. a semantic differential scale.

d. a Guttman scale.

e. none of the above.

151. When scientific analyses move from the level of theoretical statements to that of testable hypotheses, the process has involved:

a. inductive reasoning

b. deductive reasoning*

c. causal reasoning

d. common sense reasoning

e. operational definitions.

152. The level of measurement that allows researchers to add and subtract is:

a. nominal

b. ordinal

c. interval*

d. all of the above

e. only b and c.

153. Which of the following statements indicates a positive relationship between the variables x and y.

a. As the value of x increases, the value of y decreases.

b. As the value of y increases, the value of x decreases.

c, As the value of x increases, the value of y remains unchanged.

d. As the value of x decreases, the value of y decreases.*

154. The elements or "building blocks" of theories are:

a. hypotheses

b. independent variables

c. concepts*

d. causality

e. dependent variables

155. Which of the following would most clearly be an illustration of predictive research?

a. a study to assess the amount of child abuse in a particular community.

b. a study to determine why some teenagers are more likely than others to abuse alcohol or drugs.

c. a study to project how many children will suffer from malnourishment if funding for a social program is reduced.*

d. a study designed with a practical outcome in mind and with the assumption that some group or society will benefit from it.

156. One of the advantages of using scales over single-item measures is:

a. scales are less costly to develop and administer.

b. multiple-item measures are more valid.*

c .multiple-item scales enable the researcher to shift the unit of analyses.

d. scales can achieve a lower and more simplified level of measurement.

157. Which of the following is the "weakest" possible operational definition of spouse abuse?

a. having the police respond to a domestic violence dispute at a person's home.

b. observing bruises or lacerations on a spouse's face.

c. a first-hand observation of one spouse striking another.

d. the deliberate striking of a spouse with the intent of doing bodily harm.*

158. Which of the following is true regarding validity and reliability?

a. a valid measure is generally a reliable one.*

b. a reliable measure is generally a valid one.

c. validity can be demonstrated more easily.

d. if we know a measure is reliable, we need not be concerned with its validity.

e. all of the above are true.

159. A sampling interval of 5 was used to select a sample from a population of 1000.� How many elements are to be in the sample?

a. 5

b. 50

c. 100

d. 200*

e. 1,000

160. Which of the following sampling procedures is likely to produce biased results if a sampling frame contains a cyclical or recurring pattern?

a. systematic sampling*

b. simple random sampling

c. stratified sampling

d. quota sampling

e. availability sampling

161. The more homogeneous a population is on the variables being studied:

a . the larger the sample size must be to be representative.

b. the more one should use cluster sampling.

c. the smaller the sample size must be to be representative.*

d. the less necessary it is to use probability samples.

162. One of the major reasons for using a stratified sample is:

a. to achieve a more representative sample.*

b. to reduce sampling error for a given sample size.

c. to make use of a sampling frame.

d. to learn what the probability is of each unit in the population appearing in the sample.

163. A disproportionate stratified sample is used when:

a. you want every element in the population to have the same chance of appearing in the sample.

b. you want to make comparisons among subgroups in the population when some of those subgroups are fairly uncommon.*

c. it is not possible to use a probability sample.

d. the sampling error is likely to be low.

164. One of the drawbacks of snowball sampling is:

a. it is a very expensive form of sampling.

b. the sampling error tends to be very large.

c .it may miss people who are isolated from social networks.*

d. it leads to bias if the elements are listed in the sampling frame in a cyclical fashion.

165. The proportion of a sample that completes and returns a questionnaire or agrees to be interviewed is called:

a. the response rate.*

b. the sampling frame.

c .the unit of analysis.

d. the interview schedule.

e. the pretest.

166. Quota sampling is like stratified sampling in that both:

a.� have low sampling error.

b. can determine the probability of each element in a population appearing in the sample.

c. are nonprobability samples.

d. divide a population into categories and sample from those categories.*

167. Which of the following are ways of avoiding the ethical problem of withholding treatment from a control group without

�������� imperiling the scientific integrity of the research?

a. give the control group a treatment that is known to be effective.

b. delay giving the treatment to the control group for a period that will allow appropriate comparisons to be made.

c. give the treatment to the control group and then withdraw the treatment.

d. all of the above would avoid the ethical problems.

e. only a and b would avoid the ethical problems.*

168. The group from which some treatment is withheld is called:

a. a privacy group.

b. a treatment group.

c. a debriefing.

d. a pretest group.

e. a control group.*

169. In experimental research, the experimental group:

a. is the same as the control group.

b. is exposed to the experimental stimulus.*

c. is created to control for extraneous variables.

d. experiences only the dependent variables.

e. is used only during the pretest.

170. In the language of experimentation, a "pretest" refers to:

a. the measurement of the independent variable before it is applied to subjects.

b. a measure of the dependent variable before subjects are exposed to the independent variable.*

c. the random assignment of subjects to experimental and control conditions.

d. the extent of extraneous variability that exists before exposure of subjects to the independent variable.

171. The term "external validity" in experiments refers to:

a. the extent to which causal inferences made in an experiment can be generalized beyond the experimental setting.

b. whether the independent variable actually produces the effect that it appears to have on the dependent variable.*

c. the extent to which the design approximates a true experimental design.

d. the elimination of experimenter effects.

172. One of the advantages of experiments over other research designs is that experiments:

a. reduce the likelihood of experimenter effects occurring.

b. offer researchers access to large samples of people.

c. offer researchers the most advantageous position from which to infer causal relations between variables.*

d. give researchers access to people, such as the deceased, who are inaccessible to other forms of research.

173. In experimental research, the independent variables:

a. are the same as the experimental stimulus.

b. are variables that are hypothesized to produce changes in other variables.

c. have a value that is dependent on the value of the dependent variables.

d. are experienced only by the control group.

e. both a and b.*

174. The control group is very important in experiments because:

a. it provides the basis of comparison from which the effects of the independent variable are measured.*

b. people in this group are exposed to random variability.

c. it tells whether an experiment has external validity or not.

d. it helps to conduct the debriefing after an experiment.

175. When we say that the research interview is a "secondary" relationship, we mean that:

a. the interviewer has a practical, utilitarian goal.

b. the goal of the interview is to give respondents a sympathetic ear.

c. the interviewer should try to make friends with the respondents.

d. data gathering efforts should be secondary to the personal relationship between interviewer and respondent.*

176. The method of initially contacting respondents for an interview that has the lowest rate of refusal is:

a. to telephone them.

b. to send them a letter.

c. to send them a telegram.

d. to contact them in person.*

177. Regarding the order of questions in a questionnaire:

a. opinion questions should be placed before factual questions.

b. interesting questions should be placed toward the end of the questionnaire as an enticement.

c. factual questions should be placed before opinion questions.*

d. standard demographic questions regarding age, sex, and the like should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire.

178. If all of the theoretically relevant answers to a question can be determined in advance and there is a limited number of such answers,

�������� �then ������������������������������ �would be most appropriate to use.

a. closed-ended questions.*

b. mailed questionnaires.

c. open-ended questions.

d. telephone surveys.

179. A contingency question in a questionnaire refers to:

a. a question that can be dropped if the interview is taking too long.

b. a question that is revised or dropped because it is shown to be ambiguous in a pretest.

c. an open-ended question that will have to be coded by the investigator during data analysis.

d. a question that a respondent may or may not be requested to answer depending on their response to a previous question.*

Which research method is a bottom up approach to research?

The inductive method is a “bottom up” approach and is contrasted with the deductive or “top down” method (discussed on p.

Which of the following is not a type of non

Which of the following is NOT a type of non-probability sampling? Quota sampling.

Which among the following research technique is more time consuming but scientifically valid?

While longitudinal studies will often be more time-consuming and expensive than cross-sectional studies, they are more likely to identify causal relationships between variables.

Which part of a research report contains details of how the research was planned and conducted mcq?

Expert-Verified Answer The research design is the part that show how the research is planned or conducted. Research design is the part that shows the framework of research methods and techniques which are chosen by the researcher.